i may have just misread how the calculation is done, but from my understanding it goes something like this.
The TAPL is determined by your deviation from -expected amounts of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ,6 ,7 place finishes (14% ish)
-there is no distinction as far as TAPL scoring is concerned as to whether you have more of the place in question or less of it. (18% 1st vs 10% 1st would yield same scoring)
-there is no weight put on each place (18% 1st affects your tapl positively the sam as 18% 2nd, 3rd, 4th ect ect)


again i may have just misread how the calculations are done. also the wording was a bit confusing since you said the 7 numbers used to calculate TAPL are the differences of how many finishes you got in each place Vs. how many you would expect to have. but then when you wrote out the equation you wrote it as

"TAPL = (7 ? 5)squared/5 + (6 ? 5)squared/5 + (5 ? 5)squared/5 + (4 ? 5)squared/5 + (4 ? 5)squared/5 + (4 ? 5)squared/5 + (5 ? 5)squared/5 = 1.60. Divide the 160 by 5.92 (the square root of 35, then multiply by 1000 to get a TAPL of 270. "

where im assuming the "?" are actually supposed to be "?" which would be a sum of the squares of the quotients not the differences.

any way just hoping you can find the time to clear this up. If i didnt make my concern clear enough to you let me know and ill try to clarify. Thanks